Perhaps with the many substitutions that the mayans had, for similar syllabic sounds, or phonetical expression, is it possible that it has very little to do with repetition, but more to do with inflection? Perhaps the similar sounds, but different symbols is in fact a way to communicate with diffrent tonal inflection. Who wants to hear a person tell a story in monotone? WHO?? (I hope everyone picked uped on the obvious expample i just gave) Well, why write in monotone if one has the option to do otherwise? I don't know, its just a thought.